by gillum
louper wrote:
You always take 1 from the OPPONENT who has the most (or, in the case of a tie, you choose which one) and also 1 from the supply. So, if you're in first, you still get 1 from an opponent and 1 from the supply.
(I think - I don't have the rules in front of me, but believe it IS clarified in the rules with respect to the word "opponent".)
(I think - I don't have the rules in front of me, but believe it IS clarified in the rules with respect to the word "opponent".)
The rules say the following:
You take 1 Influence point from the general supply, and 1 Influence point from the opponent with the most Influence. The player with the most Influence may shift between successive activations of the card. If multiple opponents are tied for having the most Influence, you choose from which tied player you take the Influence point.
I think that a reasonable interpretation of "the opponent with the most Influence" is "any opponent who does not have less influence than some other opponent."
It would have been better if the second sentence had begun "The opponent with the most Influence ...".
All that said, what is this talk about a general supply of Influence?
Isn't there just an Influence track?
Would the Executioner rule have been better stated as follows?
If any of your opponents has Influence, you gain two Influence points. Your opponent with the most Influence loses one Influence point. If multiple opponents are tied for having the most Influence, you choose from among them one player to lose an Influence point. Note that the opponent with the most Influence may shift between successive activations of the card. If none of your opponents has Influence, you gain only one Influence point.